15th July 2004 at 13:39
#34457

Karthik

Guest

A big doubt. Can anyone clarify??

We say that each Frequency Channel is separated by 200KHz. So this is the effective Bandwidth.This channel is divided into 8 Timeslots.

So 1/200KHz = 5 Microsec.

But if you see that 8 Timeslots constitutes one Frequency Channel, then as far as calculations show:

1 Timeslot = 0.577ms.

Which means 8 Timeslots = 4.16ms.

Can you justify how 5 Microsec can be divided so that we get 4.16ms.

I give up, how come 5 Microsec = 4.16ms ??????????????