18th July 2004 at 13:51
#37931

Karthik

Guest

We say that each Frequency Channel is separated by 200KHz. So this is

> the effective Bandwidth.So 1/200KHz = 5 Microsec.

>

> This channel is divided into 8 Timeslots.

>

> So this 5 Microseconds must be equally divided for getting 8

> Timeslots in that particular Frequency Channel

>

>

> But if you see that 8 Timeslots constitutes one Frequency Channel,

> then as far as calculations go:

> 1 Timeslot = 0.577ms.

> Which means 8 Timeslots = 4.16ms.

>

>

> Can you justify how 5 Microsec can be divided so that we get a total

> time of 4.16ms.

If ur reply is:

The channels are separated in

freq. by 200Khz guard bands to prevent adjacent channel interference.

Then let me know what is the effective Bandwidth of a particular Frequency channel